\boldsymbol{\phi} &\sim p(\boldsymbol{\phi}). by taking the expected value of the conditional posterior distribution of the group-level parameters over the marginal posterior distribution of the hyperparameters): , $When the hyperparameters are fixed, we can factorize the posterior as in the no-pooling model: \[ Because we are using probabilistic programming tools to fit the model, we do not have to care about the conditional conjugacy anymore, and can use any prior we want. p(\mu, \tau) &\propto 1, \,\, \tau > 0. In the beta-binomial example we can denote the aforementioned improper prior (known as Haldane’s prior) as: p(θ) ∝ θ−1(1 −θ)−1. However, we can also avoid setting any distribution hyperparameters, while still letting the data dictate the strength of the dependency between the group-level parameters. \theta_j \,|\, \mathbf{Y} = \mathbf{y}\sim N(y_j, \sigma_j) \quad \text{for all} \,\, j = 1, \dots, J. The principles however does not change. You can read more about the experimental set-up from the section 5.5 of (Gelman et al. \mathbf{Y} \perp\!\!\!\perp \boldsymbol{\phi} \,|\, \boldsymbol{\theta} \\ Now that we are using Stan to fit the model, also this assumption is no longer necessary.↩, Or it may mean that the model was specified completely wrong: for instance, some of the parameter constraints may be forgotten. Also, often point estimates may be substituted for some of the parameters in the otherwise Bayesian model. \frac{1}{n_j} \sum_{i=1}^{n_j} Y_{ij} \sim N\left(\theta_j, \frac{\hat{\sigma}_j^2}{n_j}\right). In the fully Bayesian approach the marginal posterior of the group-level parameters is obtained by integrating the conditional posterior distribution of the group-level parameters over the whole marginal posterior distribution of the hyperparameters (i.e. &= p(\boldsymbol{\phi}) p(\boldsymbol{\theta}|\boldsymbol{\phi}) p(\mathbf{y} | \boldsymbol{\theta}) \\ With this prior the full model is: \[ Improper priors are also allowed in Stan programs; they arise from unconstrained parameters without sampling statements. Let’s simulate also from this model, and then draw again a boxplot (which is little bit stupid, because exactly the same posterior is drawn eight times, but this is just for the illustration purposes): Because the simplifying assumptions of the previous two models do not feel very realistic, let’s also fit a fully Bayesian hierarchical model.$, $$\boldsymbol{\phi} = \boldsymbol{\phi}_0$$, $I stripped one of four bolts on the faceplate of my stem. p(\mu, \tau^2) \propto (\tau^2)^{-1}, \,\, \tau > 0 \end{split}$ for each of the $$j = 1, \dots, J$$ groups. We will use the point estimates for the standard deviations $$\hat{\sigma^2_j}$$ for each of the schools11. p(\theta) &\propto 1. \begin{split} Other common options are normal priors or student-t … Stan: If no prior distributions is specified for a parameter, it is given an improper prior distribution on $$(-\infty, +\infty)$$ after transforming the parameter to its constrained scale. \end{split} Note: If using a dense representation of the design matrix ---i.e., if the sparse argument is left at its default value of FALSE --- then the prior distribution for the intercept is set so it applies to the value when all predictors are centered (you don't need to manually center them). Statistical Machine Learning CHAPTER 12. Y_{ij} \,|\, \boldsymbol{\theta}_j &\sim p(y_{ij} | \boldsymbol{\theta}_j) \quad \text{for all} \,\, i = 1, \dots , n_j \\ The no-pooling model fixes the hyperparameters so that no information flows through them. Y_{11}, \dots , Y_{n_11}, \dots, Y_{1J}, \dots , Y_{n_JJ} &\perp\!\!\!\perp \,|\, \boldsymbol{\theta} \\ The standard deviation of the test scores of the students was around 100, and this could also be thought as an upper limit for the between-the-group variance, so that the realistic interval for $$\tau$$ is $$(0,100)$$. In Bayesian linear regression, the choice of prior distribution for the regression coecients is a key component of the analysis. (See also section C.3 in the 1.0.1 version). &= p(\boldsymbol{\phi}) \prod_{j=1}^J p(\boldsymbol{\theta}_j | \boldsymbol{\phi}) p(\mathbf{y}_j|\boldsymbol{\theta}_j). We would like to show you a description here but the site won’t allow us. Cambridge, MA. \begin{split} p(\mu | \tau) &\propto 1, \,\, \tau \sim \text{half-Cauchy}(0, 25), \,\,\tau > 0. Y_j \,|\,\theta_j &\sim N(\theta_j, \sigma^2_j) \\ \theta_j \,|\, \mu, \tau^2 \sim N(\mu, \tau^2) \quad \text{for all} \,\, j = 1, \dots, J. Improper priors are also allowed in Stan programs; they arise from unconstrained parameters without sampling statements. A flat (even improper) prior only contributes a constant term to the density, and so as long as the posterior is proper (finite total probability mass)—which it will be with any reasonable likelihood function—it can be completely ignored in the HMC scheme. It can be easily shown that the resulting posterior is proper a long as we have observes at least one success and one failure. \end{split} Where can I travel to receive a COVID vaccine as a tourist? \boldsymbol{\phi} &\sim p(\boldsymbol{\phi}). MathJax reference. However, in the case of conditional conjugacy (which we will consider in the next section), we can mix simulation and techniques for multi-parameter inference from Chapter 5 to derive the marginal posteriors. This kind of a relatively flat prior, which is concentrated on the range of the realistic values for the current problem is called a weakly informative prior: Now the full model is: $From the Stan reference v1.0.2 (pg 6, footnote 1). This is why we chose the beta prior for the binomial likelihood in Problem 4 of Exercise set 3, in which we estimated the proportions of the very liberals in each of the states.↩, Actually this assumption was made to simplify the analytical computations. Parameters without defined priors in Stan, Difficulties with a Bayesian formulation of a model for human timing data, Is rstan or my grid approximation incorrect: deciding between conflicting quantile estimates in Bayesian inference, Interesting / strange behavior of one chane on different [unrelated] variables in STAN, Prior Parameters in Bayesian Hierarchical Linear model, About specifying independent priors for each parameter in bayesian modeling.$ The full model specification depends on how we handle the hyperparameters. Probably the simplest thing to do would be to assume the true training effects $$\theta_j$$ as independent, and use a noninformative improper prior for them: $They match almost exactly the posterior medians for this new model. First we will take a look at the general form of the two-level hierarchical model, and then make the discussion more concrete by carefully examining a classical example of the hierarchical model. Y_j \,|\,\theta_j \sim N(\theta_j, \sigma^2_j) \quad \text{for all} \,\, j = 1, \dots, J p (θ) ∝ θ − 1 (1 − θ) − 1. To do so we also have to specify a prior to the parameters $$\mu$$ and $$\tau$$ of the population distribution. To omit a prior on the intercept —i.e., to use a flat (improper) uniform prior— prior_intercept can be set to NULL . p(\mu, \tau) \propto 1, \,\, \tau > 0 There is not much to say about improper posteriors, except that you basically can’t do Bayesian inference. The problem is that I don't understand what Stan is doing when I have parameters without defined priors. It seems that by using the separate parameter for each of the schools without any smoothing we are most likely overfitting (we will actually see if this is the case at the next week!). Even though the prior is improper… However, it takes only few minutes to write the model into Stan, whereas solving the part of the posterior analytically, and implementing a sampler for the rest would take a considerably longer time for us to do. However, it turns out that using a completely flat improper prior for the expected value and the standard deviation: \[ Can we calculate mean of absolute value of a random variable analytically? \end{split} p(\theta|\mathbf{y}) = N\left( \frac{\sum_{j=1}^J \frac{1}{\sigma^2_j} y_j}{\sum_{j=1}^J \frac{1}{\sigma^2_j}},\,\, \frac{1}{\sum_{j=1}^J \frac{1}{\sigma^2_j}} \right) Y_j \,|\,\theta_j &\sim N(\theta_j, \sigma^2_j) \\ p(\mu, \tau^2) \propto (\tau^2)^{-1}, \,\, \tau > 0 In some cases, an improper prior may lead to a proper posterior, but it is up to the user to guarantee that constraints on the parameter (s) or the data ensure the propriety of the posterior.$, $$p(\theta_1|\mathbf{y}), \dots p(\theta_8|\mathbf{y})$$, $To omit a prior ---i.e., to use a flat (improper) uniform prior--- set prior_aux to NULL. \hat{\boldsymbol{\phi}}_{\text{MLE}}(\mathbf{y}) = \underset{\boldsymbol{\phi}}{\text{argmax}}\,\,p(\mathbf{y}|\mathbf{\boldsymbol{\phi}}) = \underset{\boldsymbol{\phi}}{\text{argmax}}\,\, \int p(\mathbf{y}_j|\boldsymbol{\theta})p(\boldsymbol{\theta}|\boldsymbol{\phi})\,\text{d}\boldsymbol{\theta}. Y_j \,|\,\theta_j &\sim N(\theta_j, \sigma^2_j) \\ How to make a high resolution mesh from RegionIntersection in 3D. \begin{split} An interval prior is something like this in Stan (and in standard mathematical notation): sigma ~ uniform(0.1, 2); In Stan, such a prior presupposes that the parameter sigma is declared with the same bounds. In the so-called complete pooling model we make an apriori assumption that there are no differences between the means of the schools (and probably the standard deviations are also the same; different observed standard deviations are due to different sample sizes and random variance), so that we need only single parameter $$\theta$$, which presents the true training effect for all of the schools.$ but the crucial implicit conditional independence assumption of the hierarchical model is that the data depends on the hyperparameters only through the population level parameters: $This option means specifying the non-hierarchical model by assuming the group-level parameters independent.$, $p(\mu | \tau) &\propto 1, \,\, \tau^2 \sim \text{Inv-gamma}(1, 1). Since we are using proabilistic programming tools to fit the model, this assumption is no longer necessary.$, $Flat Prior Density for The at prior gives each possible value of equal weight. p(\boldsymbol{\theta}|\mathbf{y}) \approx p(\boldsymbol{\theta}|\hat{\boldsymbol{\phi}}_{\text{MLE}}, \mathbf{y}), p(\boldsymbol{\theta}|\mathbf{y}) \propto 1 \cdot \prod_{j=1}^J p(y_j| \boldsymbol{\theta}_j), Often the observations inside one group can be modeled as independent: for instance, the results of the test subjects of the randomized experiments, or responses of the survey participant chosen by the random sampling can be reasonably thought to be independent. BAYESIAN INFERENCE where b = S n/n is the maximum likelihood estimate, e =1/2 is the prior mean and n = n/(n+2)⇡ 1. Y_j \,|\,\theta_j \sim N(\theta_j, \sigma^2_j) \quad \text{for all} \,\, j = 1, \dots, J \end{split} I don't understand the bottom number in a time signature. \begin{split} \begin{split} The original improper prior for the standard devation p(τ) ∝ 1 p (τ) ∝ 1 was chosen out of the computational convenience. If the population distribution $$p(\boldsymbol{\theta}|\boldsymbol{\phi})$$ is a conjugate distribution for the sampling distribution $$p(\mathbf{y}|\boldsymbol{\theta})$$, then we talk about the conditional conjugacy, because the conditional posterior distribution of the population parameters given the hyperparameters $$p(\boldsymbol{\theta}|\mathbf{y}, \boldsymbol{\phi})$$ can be solved analytically10. However, we take a fully simulational approach by directly generating a sample $$(\boldsymbol{\phi}^{(1)}, \boldsymbol{\theta}^{(1)}), \dots , (\boldsymbol{\phi}^{(S)}, \boldsymbol{\theta}^{(S)})$$ from the full posterior $$p(\boldsymbol{\theta}, \boldsymbol{\phi},| \mathbf{y})$$. \end{split} Y_{ij} \,|\, \boldsymbol{\theta}_j &\sim p(y_{ij} | \boldsymbol{\theta}_j) \quad \text{for all} \,\, i = 1, \dots , n_j \\ p(\theta|\mathbf{y}) = N\left( \frac{\sum_{j=1}^J \frac{1}{\sigma^2_j} y_j}{\sum_{j=1}^J \frac{1}{\sigma^2_j}},\,\, \frac{1}{\sum_{j=1}^J \frac{1}{\sigma^2_j}} \right) p(\boldsymbol{\theta}|\mathbf{y}) \propto p(\boldsymbol{\theta}|\boldsymbol{\phi_0}) p(\mathbf{y}|\boldsymbol{\theta}) = \prod_{j=1}^J p(\boldsymbol{\theta}_j|\boldsymbol{\phi_0}) p(\mathbf{y}_j | \boldsymbol{\theta}_j), The default prior for population-level effects (including monotonic and category specific effects) is an improper flat prior over the reals. \begin{split} A traditional noninformative, but proper, prior for used for nonhierarchical models is $$\text{Inv-gamma}(\epsilon, \epsilon)$$ with some small value of $$\epsilon$$; let’s use a smallish value $$\epsilon = 1$$ for the illustration purposes. Y_j \,|\,\theta_j &\sim N(\theta_j, \sigma^2_j) \\ algorithm. Let’s first examine the marginal posterior distributions $$p(\theta_1|\mathbf{y}), \dots p(\theta_8|\mathbf{y})$$ of the training effects : The observed training effects $$y_1, \dots, y_8$$ are marked into the boxplot by red crosses, and into the histograms by the red dashed lines. Regarding improper priors, also see the asymptotic results that the posterior distribution increasingly depends on the likelihood as sample size increases. For parameters with no prior specified and unbounded support, the result is an improper prior. p(\mathbf{y}_j |\boldsymbol{\theta}_j) = \prod_{i=1}^{n_j} p(y_{ij}|\boldsymbol{\theta}_j). \end{split} This means that utilizing the empirical Bayes approach here (subsituting the posterior mode or the maximum likelihood estimate for the value of $$\tau$$) in this model would actually lead to radically different results compared to the fully Bayesian approach: because the point estimate $$\hat{\tau}$$ for the between-groups variance would be zero or almost zero, the empirical Bayes would in principle reduce to the complete pooling model which assumes that there are no differences between the schools! We can derive the posterior for the common true training effect $$\theta$$ with a computation almost identical to one performed in Example 5.2.1, in which we derived a posterior for one observation from the normal distribution with known variance: \[ The parameter matrix B 0 is set to re ect our prior … Fixed effects. Just so I'm clear about this, if STAN samples on the log(sigma) level, the flat prior is still over sigma and not over log(sigma)? The problem is to estimate the effectiviness of training programs different schools have for preparing their students for a SAT-V (scholastic aptitude test - verbal) test. \boldsymbol{\theta}_1, \dots, \boldsymbol{\theta}_J &\perp\!\!\!\perp \,|\, \boldsymbol{\phi}, Let’s also take a look at the marginal posteriors of the parameters of the population distribution $$p(\mu|\mathbf{y})$$ and $$p(\tau|\mathbf{y})$$: The marginal posterior of the standard deviation is peaked just above the zero. Because the empirical Bayes approximates the marginal posterior of the group-level parameters by plugging in the point estimates of the hyperparameters to the conditional posterior of the group-level parameters given the hyperparameters: \[ We assume that the observations $$Y_{1j}, \dots , Y_{n_jj}$$ within each group are i.i.d., so that the joint sampling distribution can be written as a product of the sampling distributions of the single observations (which were assumed to be the same): \[ Bayesian Data Analysis, Third Edition. Murphy, Kevin P. 2012. This kind of the spatial hierarchy is the most concrete example of the hierarchy structure, but for example different clinical experiments on the effect of the same drug can be also modeled hierarchically: the results of each test subject belong to the one of the experiments (=groups), and these groups can be modeled as a sample from the common population distribution. Let’s look at the summary of the Stan fit: We have a posterior distribution for 10 parameters: expected value of the population distribution $$\mu$$, standard deviation of the population distribution $$\tau$$, and the true training effects $$\theta_1, \dots , \theta_8$$ for each of the schools. The original improper prior for the standard devation $$p(\tau) \propto 1$$ was chosen out of the computational convenience. Then the components $$\boldsymbol{\phi}^{(1)}, \dots , \boldsymbol{\phi}^{(S)}$$ can be used as a sample from the marginal posterior $$p(\boldsymbol{\phi}|\mathbf{y})$$, and the components $$\boldsymbol{\theta}^{(1)}, \dots , \boldsymbol{\theta}^{(S)}$$ can be used as a sample from the marginal posterior $$p(\boldsymbol{\theta}|\mathbf{y})$$. Often observations have some kind of a natural hierarchy, so that the single observations can be modelled belonging into different groups, which can also be modeled as being members of the common supergroup, and so on. It is also a little bit of the ‘’double counting’’, because the data is first used to estimate the parameters of the prior distribution, and then this prior and the data are used to compute the posterior for the group-level parameters. It is prone to overfitting, especially if there is only little data on some of the groups, because it does not allow us to ‘’borrow statistical strength’’ for these groups with less data from the other more data-heavy groups. Y_j \,|\,\theta_j &\sim N(\theta_j, \sigma^2_j) \\ In principle, this difference between the empirical Bayses and the full Bayes is the same as the difference between using the sampling distribution with a plug-in point estimate $$p(\tilde{\mathbf{y}}|\boldsymbol{\hat{\theta}}_{\text{MLE}})$$ and using the full proper posterior predictive distribution $$p(\tilde{\mathbf{y}}|\mathbf{y})$$, which is derived by integrating the sampling distribution over the posterior distribution of the parameter, for predicting the new observations.$ The posterior distribution is a normal distribution whose precision is the sum of the sampling precisions, and the mean is a weighted mean of the observations, where the weights are given by the sampling precisions. Thanks for contributing an answer to Cross Validated! A 95 percent posterior interval can be obtained by numerically ﬁnding a and b such that If there are lots of divergent transitions, it usually means that the model is specified so that HMC sampling from it is hard13, and that the results may be biased because the sampler did not explore the whole area of the posterior distribution efficiently. How to best use my hypothetical “Heavenium” for airship propulsion? The following Python code illustrates how to use Stan… p(\mu, \tau) \propto 1, \,\, \tau > 0 Unless I've always been confused about how JAGS/BUGS worked, I thought you always had to define a prior distribution of some kind for every parameter in the model to be drawn from. p(\boldsymbol{\theta}, \boldsymbol{\phi},| \mathbf{y}) &\propto p(\boldsymbol{\theta}, \boldsymbol{\phi}) p(\mathbf{y} | \boldsymbol{\theta}, \boldsymbol{\phi})\\ 2013). In this case this uniform prior is improper, because these intervals are unbounded. \begin{split} If no prior were specified in the model block, the constraints on theta ensure it falls between 0 and 1, providing theta an implicit uniform prior. Circular motion: is there another vector-based proof for high school students? For instance, the results of the survey may be grouped at the country, county, town or even neighborhood level. To avoid confusion it is useful to deﬁne improper distributions as particular limits of proper distributions. How do you label an equation with something on the left and on the right? Windows 10 - Which services and Windows features and so on are unnecesary and can be safely disabled? 3. Hmm… Stan warns that there are some divergent transitions: this indicates that there are some problems with the sampling. \] leads to a proper posterior if the number of groups $$J$$ is at least 3 (proof omitted), so we can specify the model as: $p(\boldsymbol{\theta}|\mathbf{y}) = \int p(\boldsymbol{\theta}, \boldsymbol{\phi}|\mathbf{y})\, \text{d}\boldsymbol{\phi} = \int p(\boldsymbol{\theta}| \boldsymbol{\phi}, \mathbf{y}) p(\boldsymbol{\phi}|\mathbf{y}) \,\text{d}\boldsymbol{\phi}. Nevertheless, this improper prior works out all right. \boldsymbol{\theta}_j \,|\, \boldsymbol{\phi} &\sim p(\boldsymbol{\theta}_j | \boldsymbol{\phi}) \quad \text{for all} \,\, j = 1, \dots, J\\ \end{split} This kind of the combining of results of the different studies on the same topic is called meta-analysis. \boldsymbol{\theta}_j \,|\, \boldsymbol{\phi} &\sim p(\boldsymbol{\theta}_j | \boldsymbol{\phi}) \quad \text{for all} \,\, j = 1, \dots, J\\ Stan accepts improper priors, but posteriors must be proper in order for sampling to succeed. This is why we could compute the posteriors for the proportions of very liberals separately for each of the states in the exercises. \end{split} To see why, let’s take a look at the posterior variances: The prior distribution $$\text{Inv-gamma}(1,1)$$ (transformed for standard deviation) is drawn on the rigthmost picture with a blue line: it seems that the data had almost no effect at all on the posterior of $$\tau$$. rstanarm R package for Bayesian applied regression modeling - stan-dev/rstanarm$ We have solved the posterior analytically, but let’s also sample from it to draw a boxplot similar to the ones we will produce for the fully hierarchical model: The observed training effects are marked into the figure with red crosses. It turns out that the improper noninformative prior  for each of the $$j = 1, \dots, J$$ schools. \] and thus the full posterior over the parameters can be written using the Bayes formula: $p(\boldsymbol{\theta}|\boldsymbol{\phi}) = \prod_{j=1}^J p(\boldsymbol{\theta}_j | \boldsymbol{\phi}). Y_j \,|\,\theta_j &\sim N(\theta_j, \sigma^2_j) \\ To omit a prior on the intercept ---i.e., to use a flat (improper) uniform prior--- prior_intercept can be set to NULL. In the following example we could have utilized the conditional conjugacy, because the sampling distribution is a normal distribution with a fixed variance, and the population distribution is also a normal distribution. I am using this perspective for easier illustration. Is the stem usable until the replacement arrives?$, $As with any stan_ function in rstanarm, you can get a sense for the prior distribution(s) by specifying prior_PD = TRUE, in which case it will run the model but not condition on the data so that you just get draws from the prior. \begin{split} In the case of stan_lm, the Jeffreys' prior on sigma_y is improper, so it just sets sigma_y = 1 when prior_PD = TRUE. Cross Validated is a question and answer site for people interested in statistics, machine learning, data analysis, data mining, and data visualization. If the posterior is relatively robust with respect to the choice prior, then it is likely that the priors tried really were noninformative. \boldsymbol{\theta}_1, \dots, \boldsymbol{\theta}_J &\perp\!\!\!\perp \,|\, \boldsymbol{\phi},$ that was used for the normal distribution in Section 5.3 does not actually lead to a proper posterior with this model: with this prior the integral of the unnormalized posterior diverges, so that it cannot be normalized into a probability distribution! A string (possibly abbreviated) indicating the estimation approach to use. \] which means that the posteriors for the true training effects can be estimated separately for each of the schools: $The inverse-gamma distribution is a conjugate prior for the variance of the normal distribution14, so it is a natural choice for a prior. \begin{split} Machine Learning: A Probabilistic Perspective. How to holster the weapon in Cyberpunk 2077? A uniform prior is only proper if the parameter is bounded[...]. I've just started to learn to use Stan and rstan. A former FDA chief says the government should give out most of its initial batch of 35 million doses now and assume those needed for a second dose will be available. \theta_j \,|\, \mu, \tau &\sim N(\mu, \tau^2) \quad \text{for all} \,\, j = 1, \dots, J \\ 2013. \end{split} Under the hood, mu and sigma are treated differently.$, $This is done by approximating the hyperparameters by the point estimates, more specifically fixing them to their maximum likelihood estimates, which are estimated from the marginal likelihood of the data $$p(\mathbf{y}|\mathbf{\boldsymbol{\phi}})$$: \[ 2.2 Improper limit of a prior distribution Improper prior densities can, but do not necessarily, lead to proper posterior distri-butions. It’s very easy and very fast, even in Python. Tuning parameters are given as a named list to the argument control: There are still some divergent transitions, but much less now. To subscribe to this RSS feed, copy and paste this URL into your RSS reader. Nevertheless, each of the eight schools claim that their training program increases the SAT scores of the students, and we want to find out what are the real effects of these training programs. \begin{split} Noninformative priors are convenient when the analyst does not have much prior information, but these prior distributions are often improper which can lead to improper posterior distributions in certain situations.$, $$p(\boldsymbol{\theta}_j|\boldsymbol{\phi}_0)$$, $$p(\mathbf{y}|\mathbf{\boldsymbol{\phi}})$$, $Stern, D.B. However, the standard errors are also high, and there is substantial overlap between the schools.$, $In other words, ignoring the truncation in the prior distribution, using the usual learning rule for the conjugate normal pair, and then applying the truncation gives the same result as the derivation above (assuming it is correct). If we just fix the hyperparameters to some fixed value $$\boldsymbol{\phi} = \boldsymbol{\phi}_0$$, then the posterior distribution for the parameters $$\boldsymbol{\theta}$$ simply factorizes to $$J$$ components: \[$, $To omit a prior ---i.e., to use a flat (improper) uniform prior--- set prior_aux to NULL. The only thing we have to change in the Stan model is to add the half-cauchy prior for $$\tau$$: Because $$\tau$$ is constrained into the positive real axis, Stan automatically uses half-cauchy distribution, so above sampling statement is sufficient. Y_j \,|\,\theta_j &\sim N(\theta_j, \sigma^2_j) \\ Y_j \,|\, \theta &\sim N(\theta, \sigma^2_j) \quad \text{for all} \,\, j = 1, \dots , J\\$ Notice that we set a prior for the variance $$\tau^2$$ of the population distribution instead of the standard deviation $$\tau$$.
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